‘Income inequality’ term creates villains

LET’S SAY THAT I lived in Mexico and spoke no or only broken Spanish, had no university degree and limited skills and could not make enough to support my family. I notice that the native Mexicans with higher education and valued skills earn more income than do I. Is that income inequality or an income difference based on differences in ability to contribute something that society and my employer highly values?

The very term of “income inequality” has an implicit negativism and bias against anyone who earns a higher income. Most higher earners are not compensated for some untoward reason — acknowledging exceptions to any rule. In the majority of cases, they are able to bring more to their employers’ tables than the uneducated, unskilled employee who may lack language skills. Is that a consequence of an unfair system?

So why use the negative term “income Inequality” rather than “appropriate difference of income?” The term income inequality gives those embracing the term a villain. They are where they are economically because of a malevolent and suppressive system working against him/her. It makes him/her an oppressed victim crying out for justice.

It also gives the illiberal media, entertainers and politicians a crusader platform as they offer their misdirected and politically correct agendas. Could the PC crowd ever embrace the uninspiring headline: “Study finds that those with less education, skills or drive earn less that those who sacrificed, studied, earned a degree and possess valued skills?” GREG KIDWELL

Albuquerque